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Posted by Kris Krieger on November 20, 2007, 5:51 pm
> wrote:
>
>>
>>>
>>>> On Fri, 9 Nov 2007 22:35:48 -0500, "Don"
>>>>
>>>>>"Pat"> wrote
>>>>>
>>>>>There's an aspect of homeschooling known as *unschooling* and this
>>>>>is the process some people go through after leaving the public
>>>>>prisons, er, schools.
>>>>>You see, the schools fill the students, and their parents, heads
>>>>>with some much bullshit it can takes years, decades and sometime
>>>>>forever, to get past
>>>>>this massive handicap.
>>>>>I too was subjected to this insanity and recognized it at the time
>>>>>and many
>>>>>years went by as I went through the *unschooling* process.
>>>>>Let me perfectly clear, *education* has nothing at all to do with
>>>>>*school*.
>>>>>
>>>>>Now, gently, I'm going to help Pat a little in his *unlearning*
>>>>>process, and
>>>>>if he's a good boy he'll get a nice big fat juicy gold star for his
>>>>>aptitude!
>>>>>
>>>>>> For example the 2nd amendment says Don can
>>>>>> keep a gun.
>>>>>
>>>>>The 2nd Amendment says nothing of the sort and can't I imagine how
>>>>>you can go from the very precise wording of the statement to where
>>>>>you ended up at,
>>>>>if you have in fact ever read and understood the thing.
>>>>>
>>>>>Have you read it?
>>>>>Do you understand it?
>>>>>
>>>>>If so, then please explain *what* right the 2nd is speaking of when
>>>>>it says
>>>>>'...the right of the people....'.
>>>>>
>>>>>Is this saying that prior to the writing of that amendment in 1787
>>>>>that no right to bear arms existed?
>>>>>
>>>>>Or is it saying that the right to bear arms was *already* existing,
>>>>>and therefore the gov't has no right to infringe upon this
>>>>>pre-existing right?
>>>>>
>>>>>> By taking a strict constructionalist argument, you would
>>>>>> also have to say that it does NOT say that Don can keep bullets.
>>>>>
>>>>>(I don't know what you mean by *constructionalist* but....)
>>>>>
>>>>>None of the amendments say I can keep a toaster either but I have
>>>>>one. Should I be sent to gitmo for this heinous infraction?
>>>>
>>>> Since Congress was given the power to issue letters of marque and
>>>> reprisal which enabled private vessels to capture other ships, it
>>>> clearly implies that people were allowed to have fairly serious
>>> ^^^^^^
>>>
>>>> armament. We know from history there were United States based
>>>> privateers. Incidently, the letters of marque clause predates the
>>>> 10 amendments.
>>>
>>> Lets be clear, the amendments don't *give* anything to anybody or
>>> *allow* anybody to do anything.
>>> Rights are *inherent* and not given or allowed by anybody.
>>> The amendments place *restrictions* on what the gov't CAN and CAN'T
>>> do. Read that last sentence again.
>>
>>Yup.
>>
>>It's written down because that is supposed to keep things consistent.
>>It doesn't mean that the writing-down is the "grantor", so to speak.
>>WHat it is, is keeping a record of what is and is not agreed upon as
>>being law, so that the Law can be applied consistently.
>>
>>So, if people agree that murder is against the law, and agree that to
>>be murder, the killing has to be pre-meditated and done deliberately
>>(i.e., not an accident), it's just common sense to write it down and
>>maintain it as an official document, so that it won't be forgotten or
>>mixed-up.
>>
>>I think mot people forget that there is a difference between saying
>>"Constitutionally guaranteed rights" and "Constitutionally granted
>>rights" - the latter is not the correct statement. And even the
>>"guarantee" part relies upon people not only recording the law, but
>>respecting it.
>>
>>In essence, it is a contract outlining the agreement between the
>>People, and those elected to government and what *they* (the gov.t)
>>cannot do. But this has gotten twisted up and turned around so that
>>now, people mistakenly think that the Cnstitution is the *origin* of
>>rights and that it delineates what *the People* cannot do.
>>
>>So, when it says that the people have a right to bear arms, what it is
>>actually saying is that the governemnt cannot legitimately take
>>armaments away from the People. Of course, there is a problem now
>>because back then, "arms" meant pretty much flintlockl rifles and
>>pistols, whereas today, we have Mac-10's and AK-47's and so on, so it
>>*might* be legitimate to argue that automatic weapons are not exempt
>>from giv.t seizure, but it *cannot* be legitimate that the gov.t can
>>legitimately keep *all* arms out of the hands of the People.
>
> As I said in another posting the United States Constitution has among
> the powers of Congress the right to grant letters of marque and
> reprisal. This was a license for a ship owner to go out and capture
> enemy vessels. This in turn meant that the ship owner was assumed to
> have some fairly serious armament (cannons, etc.). In short it was
> assumed one could own a war ship, maybe even the equivalent of a
> guided missile cruiser. Chuck Stevens who posted on comp.lang.cobol
> pointed this out in one of the off topic postings.
If there was a time-limit on those letters, specifying a given situation
and/or time frame, it's not reasonable to assume it means that private
citizens *today* should own, for ex., unlicensed hand granades. I don't
muind the idea of gun licensing, *IF* it is used to insure that people
have some level of training before buying a gun.
In any event, in the end, the vital point is the degree to which people
are reasonable, or the degree to which they're ruled by personal emotions
and personal demons and a desire to dominate others. The ideal behind
"the rule of law" is that one maniac can't just up and subjugate his
neighbors simply because he has a bigger gun so to speak.
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