|
Posted by MLD on July 5, 2005, 2:51 pm
> > I want to put a drain pipe under a sidewalk for rain drainage. I am
> > trying to determine the volume of a 6 inch pipe and a 4 inch. I know
> > that one 4 inch wont be enough, but am wondering if TWO 4 inchers
> > carry as much or more water than a 6 inch pipe. I have never been any
> > good at mathematics. I think I have to multiply 4 or 6 by 3.14, but I
> > am not sure. I will either use a 6 inch or two 4 inchers, which ever
> > holds more water. Or I may even go to an 8 incher. Alot of water runs
> > down the hill and keeps putting mud over the sidewalk. I need lots of
> > drainage volume.
> >
> > Can anyone help.
>
> Assume similar pipe types such as tile or concrete and a slope that is the
> same for both the 4-inch and the 6-inch pipes.
>
> The maximum (pipe full) flow for the 6-inch pipe will be about 15 percent
> greater than for the pair of 4-inch pipes.
>
> I computed on the basis of Manning's Formula. I'll spare you the details
> but you can Google it if you're curious. Been a long time since I did a
lot
> of that as a young engineer so I checked a nomogram in one of my old
> handbooks and got verification. Interesting exercise but I had to scrape
> through a lot of mental rust.
>
> SJF
>
Quick calculation ---pi/4 washes out: Area of a 6" pipe-6^2=36. Area of two
4" pipes is 2*4^2=32.
36/32=1.125--so 6' pipe has about 12.5% more flow area than two 4' pipes.
Just agreeing with your numbers--mental exercise for me too <g>
MLD
| 
Yahoo! 
Google 
Windows Live 
del.icio.us 
digg 
Netscape 
XML Sitemap