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Posted by DerbyDad03 on October 12, 2009, 10:31 am
> I've been assuming that if some wood from my old deck had rotted some
> and the other wood is has rotted not at all, the rotted wood was not
> treated. =A0 Is that right?
> Specifically, the 30 year old deck that I mostly tore down last spring
> had 2x4's for the floor that warped etc. but never rotted. =A0I'm sure
> they were treated, right?
> But the 2x8's that went horizontally and held up the floor, and the
> 4x4's which were the posts, have substantial rot, mostly in the center
> of each piece and on one side, or at one end, with the rest looking
> pretty good. Can I assume those were treated?
> I am burning in my fireplace the tree that fell down , and would like
> to burn the non-treated lumber too.
I need to replace a deck board or 2 on my 20 YO deck due to rot. I'd
bet a substantial sum of cash that all of the deck boards were
treated.
One of them had a knot that fell out and the rot is now spreading
outward from the hole, which goes along with the whole "water getting
into the interior" discussion.
Gotta do that one before winter. It's right your foot lands as you
step down onto the stair landing.
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> and the other wood is has rotted not at all, the rotted wood was not
> treated. =A0 Is that right?
> Specifically, the 30 year old deck that I mostly tore down last spring
> had 2x4's for the floor that warped etc. but never rotted. =A0I'm sure
> they were treated, right?
> But the 2x8's that went horizontally and held up the floor, and the
> 4x4's which were the posts, have substantial rot, mostly in the center
> of each piece and on one side, or at one end, with the rest looking
> pretty good. Can I assume those were treated?
> I am burning in my fireplace the tree that fell down , and would like
> to burn the non-treated lumber too.